Talk:Akkadian Empire
From Academic Kids
Why is this titled "Semitic Empire of Sargon of Akkad"? Did Sargon of Akkad have a different Empire besides the Semitic one? Was there a Semitic Empire of someone else? Did the empire end with the death of Sargon? How could the title of an empire refer to only one person? -- Zoe
- Excellent questions all. Today people often use the word "semitic" as a racial or ethnic term (because anti-semitism is a form of racism), but in this context, "semitic" is solely a linguistic category -- what it means is that the language "Akkadian" is similar to Hebrew, Arabic,and other similar "semitic" languages. Just as many people who speak English identify themselves as belonging to different races and ethnic groups, so may Akkdian speakers have identified themselves differently. Sargon was one of many rulers of an empire whose written texts are in Akkadian. That is the most sense I can make of this title. Slrubenstein
I believe an entire page on Sargon's Empire is worthwhile. Lir 22:14 Nov 6, 2002 (UTC)
Sumer and parts of Anatolia were non-Semitic and part of Sargon's empire. Given that it's not 1911 anymore, rename it to Akkadian empire?
Is anyone working on these pages any more? It seems to me that the Akkadian Empire page and the page on Sargon of Akkad need to be better aligned with each other. I might start trying to do this and would appreciate some help if anyone is still working on this page. (Dale: May 24, 2004)
